M MATHNEM New member Joined Oct 30, 2011 Messages 12 Nov 8, 2011 #1 Hi everyone, I have to prove this: Let n,a,d be given integers with gcd(a,d)=1. Prove that there exists an integer m such that \(\displaystyle m \equiv a \pmod{n}\) and gcd(m,n)=1. Any help would be appreciated.
Hi everyone, I have to prove this: Let n,a,d be given integers with gcd(a,d)=1. Prove that there exists an integer m such that \(\displaystyle m \equiv a \pmod{n}\) and gcd(m,n)=1. Any help would be appreciated.
