Hi everyone!
i've stuck in this problem which says
if f(x/z, -z/y )=0 with z=φ(x,y) then i prove that x/z*∂z/∂x + y/z*∂z/∂y = 1
How can i use the z=f(x,y) function?
I started my solution from this point
∂z/dx=∂f/dx
∂z/∂y = ∂f/∂y
Could this be a solution way when we have envolved functions?can somebody help me??
Thank you
i've stuck in this problem which says
if f(x/z, -z/y )=0 with z=φ(x,y) then i prove that x/z*∂z/∂x + y/z*∂z/∂y = 1
How can i use the z=f(x,y) function?
I started my solution from this point
∂z/dx=∂f/dx
∂z/∂y = ∂f/∂y
Could this be a solution way when we have envolved functions?can somebody help me??
Thank you
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