That does not surprise me at all.
I cannot think of any context in which the terms sin(x),cos(x) and orthogonal have any relationship.
I do suspect there is a translation problem here.
This inner product is used in Fourier analysis. See here for more specifics. Both are also orthogonal to the span of the vector f(x)≡1.
edit: Or maybe, OP is being asked to show sin(x) and cos(x) intersect at right-angles. To prove this, show that their derivatives at intersection points differ by a factor of -1. Then conclude their tangent lines are orthogonal.
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