Like Tony Stark
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- Apr 19, 2020
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[MATH]\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{x^n}{n!} [/MATH]
I proved it using the M-test: the series is always smaller or equal to [MATH]\frac{2^n}{n!}[/MATH]. This series can be proved to be convergent by D'alembert test, so the other one must converge uniformly.
But I want to understand how the definition works, so how could I prove it to be uniformly convergent by definition?
Thanks
I proved it using the M-test: the series is always smaller or equal to [MATH]\frac{2^n}{n!}[/MATH]. This series can be proved to be convergent by D'alembert test, so the other one must converge uniformly.
But I want to understand how the definition works, so how could I prove it to be uniformly convergent by definition?
Thanks