In general I know how to solve it, here I would just like to close some doubts I have:
Laplace equation -> dx2d2V(x) first doubt here in regards to the notation: why do we mark second derviatives differently in nominator and denominator? In other words why dx2 and not d2x in denominator.
Next moving forward to the solution ∫dx2d2V(x)dx=∫0dx -> ∫dxdV(x)dx+A=∫0 -> V(x)+Ax+B=0 -> V(x)=−(Ax+B)
My solution differs from the generic on by a sign on the right hand side. It appears to me the generic solution was obtained by expanding constants from ∫0dx instead. but then what happened to the constants from the left hand side? In my case I abandoned RHS constants as it always evaluates to 0 -> 0∗dx=0. Is it just a preferred solution to get a positive sign on the RHS or mine is incorrect per se?
Thank you.
Laplace equation -> dx2d2V(x) first doubt here in regards to the notation: why do we mark second derviatives differently in nominator and denominator? In other words why dx2 and not d2x in denominator.
Next moving forward to the solution ∫dx2d2V(x)dx=∫0dx -> ∫dxdV(x)dx+A=∫0 -> V(x)+Ax+B=0 -> V(x)=−(Ax+B)
My solution differs from the generic on by a sign on the right hand side. It appears to me the generic solution was obtained by expanding constants from ∫0dx instead. but then what happened to the constants from the left hand side? In my case I abandoned RHS constants as it always evaluates to 0 -> 0∗dx=0. Is it just a preferred solution to get a positive sign on the RHS or mine is incorrect per se?
Thank you.