By "solution" do you mean you found a pair (x,y) that satisfy to the equation, but you're wondering if there's more? Or do you mean you want to see an approach that is different from yours? In either case, please share your solution.i know one solution but i am itersting in others
There is only one real solution for (x, y). But there are many complex solutions. Are these what you are trying to find or are you trying to prove there is only one real solution?i know one solution but i am itersting in others
I will use AM-GMBy "solution" do you mean you found a pair (x,y) that satisfy to the equation, but you're wondering if there's more? Or do you mean you want to see an approach that is different from yours? In either case, please share your solution.
PS: I see an AM-GM inequality.
I don't follow how you go fromI will use AM-GM
Hence:
16x2+y+16x+y2=1⟹41≥16(x+21)2+(y+21)2−21⟹16(x+21)2+(y+21)2≤1⟹(x+21)2+(y+21)2≤0Hence x=-(1/2) and y=-(1/2)
you suggested an AM-GM inequality ,I don't follow how you go from
16x2+y+16x+y2=1⟹41≥16(x+21)2+(y+21)2−21
What property or theorem did you use?
I believe your inequality is going the wrong way.16x2+y+16x+y2=1⟹41≥16(x+21)2+(y+21)2−21
first : you should check up my solution and see if the values of x and y i found are correct ,i mean if they justify the original equationI believe your inequality is going the wrong way.
A.M≥G.M216x2+y+16y2+x≥16x2+y×16y2+x16x2+y+16y2+x≥216x2+y+y2+x≥1⟹16(x+21)2+(y+21)2−21≥21⟹16(x+21)2+(y+21)2−21≥41This makes the rest of the argument invalid.
First, I'm not questioning your answer, but rather how you got your answer.first : you should check up my solution and see if the values of x and y i found are correct ,i mean if they justify the original equation
2nd in your 1st inequality if you substitute 16x2+y+16x+y2 with 1 you will get my inequality
3rd in your solution you made an assumption which is based nowhere
I reapet again if you takeFirst, I'm not questioning your answer, but rather how you got your answer.
Second, that's why I asked for your explanation in post #9.
Third, it's not based out of nowhere. It's just that you can't see it.
216x2+y+16y2+x≥16x2+y×16y2+x16x2+y+16y2+x≥216x2+y+y2+x=2⋅4x2+y+y2+xSince x2+x≥−41,similarly for y it follows:2⋅4x2+y+y2+x≥2⋅4−21=1⟹16x2+y+16y2+x≥216x2+y+y2+x≥1
No need to repeat. I got it the first time you said it. Also, I'm done here.I reapet again if you take
216x2+y+16y2+x≥16x2+y×16y2+xAnd substitute 16x2+y+16x+y2 with 1 what do you get?
Thank you thank you indeed for showing me a proof that is exactly the same with mine .Your problem is that you are leaving out too many details of your proof for people to follow. See here for the details.
-Dan