Hello all! I dont know much about statistics and I would like your help. It might be a dumb question... I ran a spearmans test between an ordinal and a scale variable. Spss showed that the correlation was significantly possitive but the graph is a little confusing. Can somebody explain?
This site uses cookies to help personalise content, tailor your experience and to keep you logged in if you register.
By continuing to use this site, you are consenting to our use of cookies.