taylor series of tan^-1(x)/x

taipenx

New member
Joined
Apr 15, 2024
Messages
1
taylor series of (tan^-1(x))/x

i am lost on how to do this an explanation would be much appreciated
 
You want to find the Taylor series of g(x)=tan1xx\displaystyle g(x) = \frac{\tan^{-1}x}{x}.

First question comes to mind, can we reduce this problem to a smaller one? Yes. We want to find the Taylor series of f(x)=tan1x\displaystyle f(x) = \tan^{-1}x, then when we are done we will divide the series by x\displaystyle x.

If you want to find the Taylor series of a function, you have to tell about what point this series will be. Otherwise, these mathematicians will assume a point that you don't like. And because I am not a mathematician, I will assume a peaceful point, x=0\displaystyle x = 0, which happens to be that we are finding the Maclaurin series of f(x)\displaystyle f(x).

Don't worry about the name. The Maclaurin series is just a Taylor series about x=0\displaystyle x = 0.

Now comes the difficult (fun) part. We will introduce the machine that produces the Maclaurin series:

n=0f(n)(0)n!xn\displaystyle \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{f^{(n)}(0)}{n!}x^n

This notation is a little difficult to understand, so I will simplify it.

n=0f(n)(0)n!xn=f(0)+f(0)1!x+f(0)2!x2+f(0)3!x3+ \displaystyle \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{f^{(n)}(0)}{n!}x^n = f(0) + \frac{f'(0)}{1!}x + \frac{f''(0)}{2!}x^2 + \frac{f'''(0)}{3!}x^3 + \cdot\cdot\cdot \ \cdot

Basically, you just need to take the derivatives of the function f(x)=tan1x\displaystyle f(x) = \tan^{-1}x and plug them above after substituting x=0x = 0. But this machine produce infinite derivatives! Now is the important question, how many of them do you need? The answer is, until you recognize a pattern. Don't panic, usually 22 to 33 derivatives will be enough to see the pattern. Try it!

After you recognize the pattern, you will create an infinite series.

tan1x=n=0anxk(n)\displaystyle \tan^{-1}x = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}a_nx^{k(n)}

The final step is to divide by xx:

tan1xx=n=0anxk(n)x=n=0anxk(n)1\displaystyle \frac{\tan^{-1}x}{x} = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{a_nx^{k(n)}}{x} = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}a_nx^{k(n)-1}

At this point, you have successfully found the Taylor series of g(x)g(x) about x=0x = 0.


Bonus question. Does this series converge for all values of xx?🤔
 
Top