Agent Smith
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- Oct 18, 2023
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4 Spanish teachers take an intensive summer course in Spanish. Their pre-course and post-course scores in Spanish are given below:
The course organizers hope to show that taking their course improves Spanish for the subjects.
Formulate a null hypothesis and an alternative hypothesis and test them.
Significance level α=0.10
Construct a 90% confidence interval for the mean increase in scores.
Computations I did:
Mean pre-course score = μ1=25.25
Standard deviation for pre-course score = σ1=6.14
Mean post-course score = μ2=28
Standard deviation for post-course score = σ2=6.2
What I did:
For μ2=28, z score = 6.1428−25.25. Now that I think of it, this is wrong and so I won't bother posting the rest of what I did wrong.
What I should've done:
μ2−μ1=μD, the mean difference between pre-course and post-course scores
μD=2.75
σD2=σ12+σ22=6.142+6.22⟹σD=8.73
Now to formulate the hypotheses:
Assumption: If there's no difference the post-course distribution of scores should be identical to the pre-course distribution of scores and so:
H0:μD=μ1−μ1=0.
The standard deviation for the difference of means = σ1.
Ha:μD>0
z score for a difference in mean scores of 2.75 is given by 6.142.75−0=0.45
P-value associated with z score = 0.45 is 1−0.6736=0.3264
P-value > α and so we can't reject H0.
I'm not sure I got this right.
???
Constructing the 90% confidence interval for the mean increase in scores:
For a 90% confidence interval (CI), we need the z-score for 0.95 probability, which is 1.64
So the 90% CI is μD±z∗×σD=2.75±(1.64×8.73)=2.75±14.32
The 90% CI is [−11.57,17.07]
The computed 90% CI seems to square with my conclusion that I can't reject H0 as 0 lies between −11.57 and 17.07. It is plausible that there's no difference between pre-course and post-course test. In addition, there's even a chance that the course impacts negatively on Spanish language skills (−11.57<0
Sorry for the long post, but I really need help on this. Is this correct?
Subject | Pre-course score | Post-course score |
1 | 30 | 29 |
2 | 26 | 30 |
3 | 30 | 35 |
4 | 15 | 18 |
Formulate a null hypothesis and an alternative hypothesis and test them.
Significance level α=0.10
Construct a 90% confidence interval for the mean increase in scores.
Computations I did:
Mean pre-course score = μ1=25.25
Standard deviation for pre-course score = σ1=6.14
Mean post-course score = μ2=28
Standard deviation for post-course score = σ2=6.2
What I did:
For μ2=28, z score = 6.1428−25.25. Now that I think of it, this is wrong and so I won't bother posting the rest of what I did wrong.
What I should've done:
μ2−μ1=μD, the mean difference between pre-course and post-course scores
μD=2.75
σD2=σ12+σ22=6.142+6.22⟹σD=8.73
Now to formulate the hypotheses:
Assumption: If there's no difference the post-course distribution of scores should be identical to the pre-course distribution of scores and so:
H0:μD=μ1−μ1=0.
The standard deviation for the difference of means = σ1.
Ha:μD>0
z score for a difference in mean scores of 2.75 is given by 6.142.75−0=0.45
P-value associated with z score = 0.45 is 1−0.6736=0.3264
P-value > α and so we can't reject H0.
I'm not sure I got this right.
???

Constructing the 90% confidence interval for the mean increase in scores:
For a 90% confidence interval (CI), we need the z-score for 0.95 probability, which is 1.64
So the 90% CI is μD±z∗×σD=2.75±(1.64×8.73)=2.75±14.32
The 90% CI is [−11.57,17.07]
The computed 90% CI seems to square with my conclusion that I can't reject H0 as 0 lies between −11.57 and 17.07. It is plausible that there's no difference between pre-course and post-course test. In addition, there's even a chance that the course impacts negatively on Spanish language skills (−11.57<0
Sorry for the long post, but I really need help on this. Is this correct?