VicenteMMOS
New member
- Joined
- Sep 25, 2019
- Messages
- 4
Hello all!
I’m writing you here to ask for some help with the Monty Hall problem. After learning about it, and listening to the explanation of the proposed solution to the problem, I must say I felt like it wasn’t accurate… even though I myself don’t know how to prove or disprove my hypothesis. Well, let me describe it for you:
The Monty Hall problem is a guessing game. Monty Hall, the TV show host, invites a guest to participate in a game that consists of three numbered closed doors, one of which has a prize behind it, and which only the host knows of. The guest then at first picks one door. The host then reveals one door which does not contain a prize behind, and asks the guest if he wants to change his first choice or stick with it. The guest decides whether or not to change doors, and then the host opens the last door picked by the guest.
The proposed solution I heard of consisted in the host always choosing to switch doors, as he would have a probability of success of 2/3. Now, here’s where I’m not convinced of this statement: under my reasoning, if the guest chooses to switch doors, he won’t have a 2/3 probability of success, he’ll have a 50% probability of success. In other words, given that the host of the program will always reveal an empty door, the probability of success of that door will collapse from 1/3 before its opening to 0 after it’s opened. So this remaining 1/3 probability will not be summed to the other door (the one that the guest didn’t pick), but will equally distributed between the 2 unopened doors. So, 1/3 + (1/3 : 2) = 1/3 + 1/6 = 0,5.
This is my reasoning. Of course, I could be wrong about it, but the way I see it, I don’t understand why would 1/3 probability of success compound itself onto an unpicked arbitrary door, that’s in theory completely equal to the unopened picked door that the guest chose at the start. This reasoning leads to a far different result to this problem than the reasoning I was presented. Let me expand on this difference by exaggerating the problem.
If we suppose there are not only 3 doors, but 1000, the reasoning I was presented (let’s call it Hypothesis A) would go as this: the guest picks one door, the host reveals 998 empty doors, then asks if guest wants to switch. At this point, the probabilities of the last unpicked door would have a 0,999 probability of containing a prize. I think that might not be the case! I don’t really know how to prove or disprove this hypothesis, that’s why I’m asking for your help, but I believe on a Hypothesis B, where the successive collapsing of probabilities of all the open doors by the host will be redistributed equally among the 2 remaining doors, leading to a 50-50 chance of success.
Can someone please help me prove/disprove my hypothesis?
Thank you.
I’m writing you here to ask for some help with the Monty Hall problem. After learning about it, and listening to the explanation of the proposed solution to the problem, I must say I felt like it wasn’t accurate… even though I myself don’t know how to prove or disprove my hypothesis. Well, let me describe it for you:
The Monty Hall problem is a guessing game. Monty Hall, the TV show host, invites a guest to participate in a game that consists of three numbered closed doors, one of which has a prize behind it, and which only the host knows of. The guest then at first picks one door. The host then reveals one door which does not contain a prize behind, and asks the guest if he wants to change his first choice or stick with it. The guest decides whether or not to change doors, and then the host opens the last door picked by the guest.
The proposed solution I heard of consisted in the host always choosing to switch doors, as he would have a probability of success of 2/3. Now, here’s where I’m not convinced of this statement: under my reasoning, if the guest chooses to switch doors, he won’t have a 2/3 probability of success, he’ll have a 50% probability of success. In other words, given that the host of the program will always reveal an empty door, the probability of success of that door will collapse from 1/3 before its opening to 0 after it’s opened. So this remaining 1/3 probability will not be summed to the other door (the one that the guest didn’t pick), but will equally distributed between the 2 unopened doors. So, 1/3 + (1/3 : 2) = 1/3 + 1/6 = 0,5.
This is my reasoning. Of course, I could be wrong about it, but the way I see it, I don’t understand why would 1/3 probability of success compound itself onto an unpicked arbitrary door, that’s in theory completely equal to the unopened picked door that the guest chose at the start. This reasoning leads to a far different result to this problem than the reasoning I was presented. Let me expand on this difference by exaggerating the problem.
If we suppose there are not only 3 doors, but 1000, the reasoning I was presented (let’s call it Hypothesis A) would go as this: the guest picks one door, the host reveals 998 empty doors, then asks if guest wants to switch. At this point, the probabilities of the last unpicked door would have a 0,999 probability of containing a prize. I think that might not be the case! I don’t really know how to prove or disprove this hypothesis, that’s why I’m asking for your help, but I believe on a Hypothesis B, where the successive collapsing of probabilities of all the open doors by the host will be redistributed equally among the 2 remaining doors, leading to a 50-50 chance of success.
Can someone please help me prove/disprove my hypothesis?
Thank you.