saturniansoul
New member
- Joined
- May 1, 2021
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Hi guys, i feel like this is a silly question so bear with me 
I'm testing the effect of Life Satisfaction (IV 1) and Materialism (IV 2) on Impulsive Buying (DV).
I have a sample size of 77 people (i know its not too many :c ). Ran a multiple regression test after assumption testing on SPSS. In my coefficients table I got the following results:
IV 2 and DV: (β=0.288, t=2.38, p=0.020) ... positive and significant correlation.
IV 1 and DV (β= -0.189, t= -0.1.56, p= 0.123) ... negative and non-significant correlation.
Does it make sense to have a negative correlation that is not significant?
However, if i look at my ANOVA table, my p value is 0.001 . So the model as a whole is significant but LS and IB arent?
Also, from the model summary table, my r value is 0.414 , r square is 0.172 , and adjusted r square is 0.149.
Any help / comments are highly appreciated!!
I'm testing the effect of Life Satisfaction (IV 1) and Materialism (IV 2) on Impulsive Buying (DV).
I have a sample size of 77 people (i know its not too many :c ). Ran a multiple regression test after assumption testing on SPSS. In my coefficients table I got the following results:
IV 2 and DV: (β=0.288, t=2.38, p=0.020) ... positive and significant correlation.
IV 1 and DV (β= -0.189, t= -0.1.56, p= 0.123) ... negative and non-significant correlation.
Does it make sense to have a negative correlation that is not significant?
However, if i look at my ANOVA table, my p value is 0.001 . So the model as a whole is significant but LS and IB arent?
Also, from the model summary table, my r value is 0.414 , r square is 0.172 , and adjusted r square is 0.149.
Any help / comments are highly appreciated!!