trignometric intervals: could you somehow express 2pi<x<9pi/4 as 0<x<pi/4 ?

[kiranthankachan]

trignometric intervals: could you somehow express 2pi<x<9pi/4 as 0<x<pi/4 ?

could you somehow express 2pi<x<9pi/4 as 0<x<pi/4

 

[pka]

could you somehow express 2pi<x<9pi/4 as 0<x<pi/4

Because \(\displaystyle 2\pi \equiv 0\) that means that subtractihg \(\displaystyle 2\pi\) is equivalent subtracting zero. So \(\displaystyle 0<x<\frac{\pi}{4}\).

 

[stapel]

Because \(\displaystyle 2\pi \equiv 0\) that means that subtractihg \(\displaystyle 2\pi\) is equivalent subtracting zero. So \(\displaystyle 0<x<\frac{\pi}{4}\).

...as long as the period of the (unstated) function is 2pi.

 

[pka]

...as long as the period of the (unstated) function is 2pi.

No, that is not correct. The period has nothing to do with the equivalence classes of angular measure.