Uniform convergence for improper integral of second kind

[Like Tony Stark]

Hi, I used the M test to prove that the first one converges uniformly (right?), but I don't know if I can do the same with the second one since it's an improper integral of second kind. Does it converge uniformly?

 

[Steven G]

You mention the M test and an improper integral of the 2nd type. These are not standard so can you please define them?

What do you think about the 2nd one? What have you tried? I would replace the lower limit with k , compute the integral in terms of k and then take the limit as k approaches 0⁺ to get the final answer. Please post back with your work.