Is there any significance to the capitalization...?
To clarify, do you mean the following?
. . . . .\(\displaystyle \L \frac{\cos{(x)}\, +\, 1}{\tan^2{(x)}}\,=\, \frac{\cos{(x)}}{\sec{(x)}\, -\, 1}\)
If so, then try simplifying each side separately. You should be able to get each side down to "cos<sup>2</sup>(x) / [1 - cos(x)]". You can then do the proof by working down one side to this point, and then working backwards up the other side to get to that side's starting point.
Eliz.