What exactly did I derive?

Steven G

Elite Member
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Dec 30, 2014
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I guess I have two questions. How do you derive the formula for Taylor?

I thought I was doing that but I got a different result and was wondering if anyone knows what good my formula is?
I repeatedly used integration by parts on int(f(x))dx letting u=f^(n)(x) and dv=[(x^n)/n!]dx. Then I took derivative of both sides.

I got int(f(x))dx = sum[((-1)^n)(x^(n+1))f^(n)(x)/(n+1)!] as n=0 to infinity
 
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