Hi, and thanks in advance for any help.
I'm multiplying two inequalities: g1(n)≤ch1(n) for all n≥n0 and g2(n)≤c′h2(n) for all n≥n0′ where c,c′,n0, and n0′′ are all constants.
The product of the inequalities is g1(n)g2(n)≤cc′h1(n)h2(n) but what happens to the range? I'm thinking it's either n2≥n0n0′ if you just multiply the ranges, or maybe n≥max(n0,n0′) if you're taking where the ranges overlap.
Any help and insight into why the answer is what it is would be greatly appreciated!
Edit: It's known that n≥0.
I'm multiplying two inequalities: g1(n)≤ch1(n) for all n≥n0 and g2(n)≤c′h2(n) for all n≥n0′ where c,c′,n0, and n0′′ are all constants.
The product of the inequalities is g1(n)g2(n)≤cc′h1(n)h2(n) but what happens to the range? I'm thinking it's either n2≥n0n0′ if you just multiply the ranges, or maybe n≥max(n0,n0′) if you're taking where the ranges overlap.
Any help and insight into why the answer is what it is would be greatly appreciated!
Edit: It's known that n≥0.