Hi, I am getting stuck on the following question. I understand why they advise us to use the cos form instead of the sin form since the particle start at x=1 which is not the origin. However, usually, I would assume that a=1 since it would be the case that the particle starts from rest so at t=0 x=n would be the amplitude that for this question I am not sure. Could someone please guide me through the entire question, not just a couple of hints since I don't think that would be enough. I have literally been sitting here for almost 1 hour straight but i still don't get the proof.
Thank you so much for your help!

Thank you so much for your help!
