pinkphiloyd
New member
- Joined
- Oct 6, 2015
- Messages
- 9
I thought I was good with derivatives. I'm trying to think about this as working backwards in my brain and I seem to be having some sort of mental hiccup.
I've watched all the Khan academy antiderivative videos a couple of times now. I was working on the practice problems and did pretty well until I got to
"evaluate the integral cos x/sin^2 x"
It's just occurred to me that I don't know how to use notation in a forum to describe where I'm getting confused. This is a problem on a problem. I'm going to attach a picture. I apologize if there's a better way to do this.
You'll see the problem in the attachment. I understand the way the problem was re-written. The problem is, in my brain, the answer provided is the solution to find the integral of (sin x)^-2. What happened to that original cos x?
I felt like a big enough idiot before I attempted to explain this here.
I've watched all the Khan academy antiderivative videos a couple of times now. I was working on the practice problems and did pretty well until I got to
"evaluate the integral cos x/sin^2 x"
It's just occurred to me that I don't know how to use notation in a forum to describe where I'm getting confused. This is a problem on a problem. I'm going to attach a picture. I apologize if there's a better way to do this.
You'll see the problem in the attachment. I understand the way the problem was re-written. The problem is, in my brain, the answer provided is the solution to find the integral of (sin x)^-2. What happened to that original cos x?
I felt like a big enough idiot before I attempted to explain this here.