AvgStudent
Full Member
- Joined
- Jan 1, 2022
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- 256
Hi,
If [imath]0^a=0[/imath], and [imath]a^0=1[/imath], then what is [imath]0^0[/imath] equal to?
I've read multiple sources, but they all give different answers. Some say 1, and some say it depends on the context of the problem. I do not understand the ambiguity of the answer. Can someone provide me with further insight?
If [imath]0^a=0[/imath], and [imath]a^0=1[/imath], then what is [imath]0^0[/imath] equal to?
I've read multiple sources, but they all give different answers. Some say 1, and some say it depends on the context of the problem. I do not understand the ambiguity of the answer. Can someone provide me with further insight?