That's not correct. 968 is correctThere are 210 different combinations altogether. Just take away (1+10+45).
Lex's correct, maybe you didn't subtract correctly.That's not correct. 968 is correct
Oh yeah. But why that way? I don't understand it.Lex's correct, maybe you didn't subtract correctly.
210−(010)−(110)−(210)=1024−1−10−45=968
From the binomial theorem,Oh yeah. But why that way? I don't understand it.
But why 1+1 if we need to use at least 3 flowersFrom the binomial theorem,
(x+y)n=k=0∑n(kn)xkyn−kLet x=1,y=1,n=10 so you have:
(1+1)10=210=k=0∑10(k10)=(010)+(110)+(210)+⋯+(1010)Lex’s method210−(010)−(110)−(210)=Your method(310)+⋯+(1010)
Your work is correct k=3∑10(k10)=968 SEE HEREThere are 10 different flowers. In how many ways can you make a flower arrangement if you have to use at least 3 flowers.
I calculated combinations from 3 flowers to 10. Is there a shorter way? View attachment 32242
We let x=y=1 so (x+y)n=(x+y)n=k=0∑n(kn)xkyn−k becomes 2n=k=0∑n(kn)But why 1+1 if we need to use at least 3 flowers
So then aren't we just doing combinations without repetition?We let x=y=1 so (x+y)n=(x+y)n=k=0∑n(kn)xkyn−k becomes 2n=k=0∑n(kn)
The 1+1 has nothing to do with the number of flowers you are picking. It is just to get rid of xkyn−k
Why do you think it's with repetition? You have 10 different flowers.So then aren't we just doing combinations without repetition?
i said without.Why do you think it's with repetition? You have 10 different flowers.
You answered your own question.i said without.