mathman123
New member
- Joined
- Aug 27, 2011
- Messages
- 1
When testing this out for a bunch of numbers, it appears true, but I was wondering if anyone had a proof for it:
abs(a-b) is greater than or equal to abs(abs(a)-abs(b))
for all a,b
abs(a-b) is greater than or equal to abs(abs(a)-abs(b))
for all a,b