Hi guys,
My problem is the following: I have to prove Cauchy-Riemann theorem for f(z)=e^(z-i).
According to Euler, this function is e^x(cosy+isiny)(cos1-isin1).
However, when I do the partial equation, they do not fit Cauchy-Riemann, so that means there is no derivative for the function. BUT derivative of e^x is always e^x, isn't it?
Are my partial derivative calculations wrong then? Or maybe transformations of the function in the first place?
Thanks for help.
My problem is the following: I have to prove Cauchy-Riemann theorem for f(z)=e^(z-i).
According to Euler, this function is e^x(cosy+isiny)(cos1-isin1).
However, when I do the partial equation, they do not fit Cauchy-Riemann, so that means there is no derivative for the function. BUT derivative of e^x is always e^x, isn't it?
Are my partial derivative calculations wrong then? Or maybe transformations of the function in the first place?
Thanks for help.