f(x) = 1/x is given as an example of an 'involution'-that is, the inverse of the function (the function that maps the output to the input)
In the case of the above example, I don't understand why it's the case because if the 'output' is 1/x then couldn't the f^-1 be 1/1/x or (x^-1)^-1 ?
So if x = 3 and the output is 1/3 then to get back to the 3 you have to (f(x))^-1
What am i getting wrong, or am I just doing something tautological without realising it?
In the case of the above example, I don't understand why it's the case because if the 'output' is 1/x then couldn't the f^-1 be 1/1/x or (x^-1)^-1 ?
So if x = 3 and the output is 1/3 then to get back to the 3 you have to (f(x))^-1
What am i getting wrong, or am I just doing something tautological without realising it?