How the fudge do I solve this one? Obviously by reducing to one sign, but how?
Tan = sin/cos is all I can think of, but that doesn't help. Please help.
So you do know that \(\displaystyle tan(x)= \frac{sin(x)}{cos(x)}\)? Then I am surprised that you do not immediately see that \(\displaystyle cos(x)tan(x)= cos(x)\frac{sin(x)}{cos(x)}= sin(x)= -\frac{1}{2}\).
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