Die problem hint needed

Student443

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A regular die was rolled 9 times. Calculate the probability that at least one six was drawn and 1 points appeared exactly once.

I have a problem with combining the both conditions together, since I know that ,,at least one six drawn" can be done by complementary events and ,,1 point exactly once" perhaps with Bernoulli trial (n=9,k=1), also know that omega = 6^9. Can anybody help me how to combine both conditions in one equation, that's the last step I miss?
 
I'm a bit confused on the problem's wording, specifically "and 1 points appeared exactly once."

If I'm interpreting the problem correctly, it's asking for the probability that in 9 rolls of a die, "6" came up at least once, and "1" came up exactly once. Is that correct?
 
I'm a bit confused on the problem's wording, specifically "and 1 points appeared exactly once."

If I'm interpreting the problem correctly, it's asking for the probability that in 9 rolls of a die, "6" came up at least once, and "1" came up exactly once. Is that correct?
Yes, correct. I should of use one convention for ,,6" and ,,1", sorry for that.
 
I'm not an expert on probability, so my method will probably be considered the "long way", but I can offer some thoughts on how I would attack it:
1. Total ways to roll a die nine times: 69.
2. Imagine each die roll is a "slot", and also assume that exactly one 6 is rolled and one 1 is rolled. Let's also assume that the 6 is in the 1st slot, and the 1 is in the 2nd slot. Here are the number of possibilities: 1 x 1 x 4 x 4 x 4 x 4 x 4 x 4 x 4. But, the 6 can be anywhere and so could the 1, so we need to shuffle them around. 9C1 shuffles the 6, and 8C1 shuffles the 1 (they can't be in the same spot at the same time). 47 x 9C1 x 8C1
3. Now let's assume that exactly two 6's are rolled and one 1 is rolled. Let's also assume that the 6 is in the 1st two slots, and the 1 is in the 3rd slot. Here are the number of possibilities: 1 x 1 x 1 x 4 x 4 x 4 x 4 x 4 x 4. Again, we need to shuffle the 6 and 1 around. 9C2 shuffles the 6, and 7C1 shuffles the 1. 46 x 9C2 x 7C1
4. Notice a pattern forming: 47 x 9C1 x 8C1 + 46 x 9C2 x 7C1 + ...
5. Once you have that sum, divide it by the answer found in 1, and you should have your probability.
 
A regular die was rolled 9 times. Calculate the probability that at least one six was drawn and 1 points appeared exactly once.
I have a problem with combining the both conditions together, since I know that ,,at least one six drawn" can be done by complementary events and ,,1 point exactly once" perhaps with Bernoulli trial (n=9,k=1), also know that omega = 6^9. Can anybody help me how to combine both conditions in one equation, that's the last step I miss?
First let's look one case. The case of having one \(1\), three sixes and five other numbers: \(1666XXXXX\). There each \(X\in\{2,3,4,5\}\).
That single can be arranged in \(\dfrac{9!}{(3!(5!))}\cdot 4^5\) ways.
So there are \(\displaystyle\sum\limits_{k = 1}^7 {\frac{{9!}}{{(8 - k)!k!}}{{(4)}^{8 - k}}} \) ordered \(9\)-tuples that meet the requirements.
To find the probability SEE HERE
 
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