KerpetenAli
New member
- Joined
- Jun 28, 2020
- Messages
- 2
Here is your post: \(x,y\) aren't empty, infinity series and \(x\cap y=\emptyset\).
Well that is somewhat better but only by a bit.I'm sorry I couldn't explain the question correctly. Original question: (P= power set)
I presume you are to show that [MATH]P(X\cup Y)\approx P(X)\times P(Y)[/MATH] in some sense, saying that the power set of the union is ... what? ... to the Cartesian product of the individual power sets. What does "[MATH]\approx[/MATH]" mean to you here? Please define it. I can see a couple kinds of relationship that would apply, but not "approximately equal".I'm sorry I couldn't explain the question correctly. Original question: (P= power set)
This is a dangerous thing to do: I am going to guess that you are asked to show thatI'm sorry I couldn't explain the question correctly. Original question: (P= power set)