zhkhelpneeded
New member
- Joined
- Jan 15, 2021
- Messages
- 7
If there is a problem like the following, how do we simplify it to get an answer? Because right now, if I substitute pi/6, it becomes 0/0. If I rewrite sin^2(x) as 1-cos^2(x), I still get 0/0. I know what the answer should be, but I'm having difficulty understanding how to approach this problem. Should I be using squeeze theorem? Also, if you would usually use hopital's rule, can you explain what you'd do if using hôpital's rule wasn't an option?
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