I'm having trouble with this problem: f(x) = x2 when x is rational, -x2 when x is irrational. Does f'(0) exist?
I think it doesn't exist because 0 is a rational number and left and right limits don't exist. Can anyone confirm or tell me if I'm wrong.
Any help will be truly appreciated!!!
Grod28
I think it doesn't exist because 0 is a rational number and left and right limits don't exist. Can anyone confirm or tell me if I'm wrong.
Any help will be truly appreciated!!!
Grod28