Lele763839
New member
- Joined
- Apr 14, 2021
- Messages
- 4
Oh yeah yeah, using properties of limitsPresumably, you mean, 'prove this'.
[MATH]\sin^2 \left(\frac{1}{x} \right)≤1[/MATH] so [MATH]x^2\sin^2 \left(\frac{1}{x} \right)≤x^2[/MATH] and the question becomes trivial.
Yes.Presumably, you mean, 'prove this'.
[MATH]\sin^2 \left(\frac{1}{x} \right)≤1[/MATH] so [MATH]x^2\sin^2 \left(\frac{1}{x} \right)≤x^2[/MATH] and the question becomes trivial.
Thank u for helping!!¡¡(*˘︶˘*).。*♡Yes.
[MATH]\sin^2 \left(\frac{1}{x} \right)≤1 \implies 0≤x^2\sin^2 \left(\frac{1}{x} \right)≤x^2[/MATH]
and [MATH]\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} x^2 = 0 [/MATH][MATH]\therefore \lim_{x \rightarrow 0} x^2\sin^2 \left(\frac{1}{x} \right)[/MATH] exists and equals 0