SusanCoutu
New member
- Joined
- Sep 28, 2018
- Messages
- 6
My question is if the derivative of a function is only a very close approximation to the actual marginal change of the function, provided dx is very small compared to dy, then shouldn't any integrals arrived from the derivative by using integration be only an approximation as well of the function the derivative was originally supposed to represent? My textbook seems to suggest that an integral arrived at by using antidifferentiation is indeed the true antiderivative and thus it's a perfect description of any measurement of total change, but I just find it hard to wrap my head around how it should be possible to arrive at the original by reversing only an approximation. Maybe my understanding of this is flawed.
Thanks for any help!
Thanks for any help!