No! That would be equivalent to dividing by 0.x(x−1)2⩾(4−x)(x−12⇒x⩾4−xtrue or false
ps can i remove (x−1)2 from both sides even if they are zero
Two common ways to avoid illegal or misleading divisions are to replace the division with factoring, or to use separate cases. Either can work here; both will lead to a two-part result.x(x−1)2⩾(4−x)(x−1)2⇒x⩾4−xtrue or false
ps can i remove (x−1)2 from both sides even if they are zero
Boss, you are correct that it might be equivalent to dividing by 0.No! That would equivalent to dividing by 0.
... and when it does not equal zero you can divide by it only because (x−1)2>0, otherwise you would have to be even more careful with your inequalityAs Dr. Peterson says, you cannot DIVIDE by (x−1)2(x - 1)^2(x−1)2 if that equals zero.