Is there any reason why the integral of simple trig function like:
Sin X raised to the power N is not (1/N+1)SinX raised to N+1*derivative of SinX (being CosX)?
I do know and follow the methods used to resolve the problem, including the use of integration by parts. But I am confounded to find why the basic integration approach using the chain rule does not work in this case.
Sin X raised to the power N is not (1/N+1)SinX raised to N+1*derivative of SinX (being CosX)?
I do know and follow the methods used to resolve the problem, including the use of integration by parts. But I am confounded to find why the basic integration approach using the chain rule does not work in this case.