I need help on both of them please,
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Please show us what you have tried and exactly where you are stuck.I need help on both of them please,
Well they do turn out to be inverse functions because f(g(x))= g(f(x))= x.These are not inverse functions. They are composite functions.
\(\displaystyle f(b) = c \text { and } g(a) = b \implies f(g(a)) = f(b) = c.\)
\(\displaystyle f(b) = c \text { and } g(b) = d \implies g(f(b)) = d.\)
That is all there is to composite functions.
And this is not a problem in prealgebra.