is there any general way/rule of integrating f(x)/f’(x)?

KYS

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Jun 18, 2020
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Hi,

I was bored and wanted to try doing this just for fun. I tried letting g’(x) = f(x) / f’(x). And then from there I got 1 / g’(x) = f’(x) / f(x) and then I multiplied both sides by g’’(x) (we’re of course assuming f is infinitely differentiable otherwise this wouldn’t be possible). After that I integrated both sides (using integration by parts) and ended up with ln|g’(x)| = 1 - ln|f’(x)| + x + c. From the looks of it though all this gets me is that f(x) = e^(x+c) which makes sense but aren’t there other functions that could potentially work here like x^2? why am I just getting an exponential as the only solution? Am I missing something or violating some kind of rule here? And if I am, is there an actual way of doing this without doing what I did?

Thanks for the help in advance.
 
I am a bit confused at what you are saying. f(x) can be ANY function. So f(x)/f'(x) is determined by f(x), which is any function.

Now you decided to define g'(x) = f(x)/f'(x). Yes 1/g'(x) = f'(x)/f(x) ....

How are you concluding what f(x) must be? It can be any function!
 
In case you do not see what Jomo is saying, let's take your suggested function and restrict it to x > 0.

[MATH]f(x) = x^2 \implies f'(x) = 2x \implies \dfrac{f(x)}{f'(x)} = \dfrac{x^2}{2x} = 0.5x.[/MATH]
[MATH]g'(x) = \dfrac{f(x)}{f'(x)} \implies g'(x) = 0.5x \implies g(x) = 0.25x^2 + C.[/MATH]
Does this relate to your answer?

[MATH]ln\{g'(x)\} = ln \left ( \dfrac{f(x)}{f'(x)} \right ) = ln(x^2) - ln(2x) =\\ 2ln(x) - ln(x) - ln(2) = ln(x) - ln(2) = ln(0.5x) \ \checkmark.[/MATH]But [MATH]ln(0.5x) \ne 1 - ln(2x) + x + c.[/MATH]
So you did something wrong somewhere.
 
I am a bit confused at what you are saying. f(x) can be ANY function. So f(x)/f'(x) is determined by f(x), which is any function.

Now you decided to define g'(x) = f(x)/f'(x). Yes 1/g'(x) = f'(x)/f(x) ....

How are you concluding what f(x) must be? It can be any function!

Figured out my mistake, thanks. I canceled out one of the f(x)’s at the end of equation. So I actually should’ve ended up with 1 - ln|f’(x)| + ln|f(x)| which in turn takes me right back where I started. Haha.

But is there actually a general rule to integrating f(x)/f’(x)?
 
Figured out my mistake, thanks. I canceled out one of the f(x)’s at the end of equation. So I actually should’ve ended up with 1 - ln|f’(x)| + ln|f(x)| which in turn takes me right back where I started. Haha.

But is there actually a general rule to integrating f(x)/f’(x)?
Try it figure it out for yourself. Try U-Substitution, try using parts, etc. Please post back.
 
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