Hi,
I was bored and wanted to try doing this just for fun. I tried letting g’(x) = f(x) / f’(x). And then from there I got 1 / g’(x) = f’(x) / f(x) and then I multiplied both sides by g’’(x) (we’re of course assuming f is infinitely differentiable otherwise this wouldn’t be possible). After that I integrated both sides (using integration by parts) and ended up with ln|g’(x)| = 1 - ln|f’(x)| + x + c. From the looks of it though all this gets me is that f(x) = e^(x+c) which makes sense but aren’t there other functions that could potentially work here like x^2? why am I just getting an exponential as the only solution? Am I missing something or violating some kind of rule here? And if I am, is there an actual way of doing this without doing what I did?
Thanks for the help in advance.
I was bored and wanted to try doing this just for fun. I tried letting g’(x) = f(x) / f’(x). And then from there I got 1 / g’(x) = f’(x) / f(x) and then I multiplied both sides by g’’(x) (we’re of course assuming f is infinitely differentiable otherwise this wouldn’t be possible). After that I integrated both sides (using integration by parts) and ended up with ln|g’(x)| = 1 - ln|f’(x)| + x + c. From the looks of it though all this gets me is that f(x) = e^(x+c) which makes sense but aren’t there other functions that could potentially work here like x^2? why am I just getting an exponential as the only solution? Am I missing something or violating some kind of rule here? And if I am, is there an actual way of doing this without doing what I did?
Thanks for the help in advance.