Finding [math]\ln(2)[/math] with infinite series is pretty easy because
[math]\ln x = \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{k+1}}{k}(x - 1)^k[/math]
has convergence interval of [math](0,2][/math]
But I can't apply this series for [math]\ln(3)[/math]
Wolfram is using this trick
[math]\ln(3) = \ln(2) - \sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{(-\frac{1}{2})^k}{k}[/math]
How can I derive this series?
[math]\ln x = \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{k+1}}{k}(x - 1)^k[/math]
has convergence interval of [math](0,2][/math]
But I can't apply this series for [math]\ln(3)[/math]
Wolfram is using this trick
[math]\ln(3) = \ln(2) - \sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{(-\frac{1}{2})^k}{k}[/math]
How can I derive this series?
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