Okay, first do you know what a "MacLaurin series"
is?
A "MacLaurin series" for a given function, f(x), is an infinite sum of constants times
powers of x,
n=0∑∞cmxn, where the constants are constructed in a particular way. If you are asked to find the MacLaurin series of
f(x)=1/(b−ax) then I have to assume that you have been taught that "particular way" of constructing those coefficients!
That way is
cn=n!1dxndnf(0). That is, the coefficient of
xn is one over n factorial times the nth derivative of the function evaluated at x= 0 (the "zeroth" derivative being the value of the function itself).
Here,
f(x)=a+bx1=(a+bx)−1. The value of the function at x= 0 is
c0=f(0)=a−1=a1. The first derivative is
f′(x)=−(a+bx)−2(b)=(a+bx)2−b and its value at x= 0 is
c1=a2−b. The second derivative is
2(a+bx)−3b2=(a+bx)32b2. Its value at x= 0 is
a32b2 and, since 2!= 2, the coefficient of
x2 is
a3b2.
The first three terms of the MacLaurin Series for
a+bx1 are
a1−a2bx+a3b2x2.
To get the entire MacLaurin series you will want to calculate enough terms explictiely so that you can "guess" the general formula for all n (so far we have
c0=a1,
c1=−a2b, and
c2=a3b2 so that shouldn't be too hard!)