Why is no one else pointing this out!!!
Because (a) the problem doesn't say to apply the theorem, but just to find such a point, if it exists; and (b) the example is in fact, a counterexample, once you see what the answer is. That's why I challenged both claimed answers.You are missing the point. If f'(x) is NOT differentiable on (-1,8) then YOU CAN NOT USE THE MVT. You can use the mean value theorem ONLY IF f(x) is continuous on [a,b] and differentiable on (a,b). You claim that f(x) is not differentiable on (-1,8) so you should stop and say that the MVT does not guarantee us any c in [-1,8] such that f'(c) = [f(b) - f(a) ]/(b-a).
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Why is no one else pointing this out!!!