Just a bit of a theoretical question about NPV. I've just learnt recently that the NPV of an annuity can be calculated by finding the sum of the discounted cashflows using the formula:
NPV=cf0+cf1/(1+r)+cf2/(1+r)^2.....cfn/(1+r)^n.
Where r is the taken to be the interest you would gain if you had the money now instead of in the the future.
I was just wondering if I could apply this formula to to a debt repayment. If I assumed an annual inflation rate of 2% could I set r= the inflation rate to calculate how how much future debt payments set in nominal terms would be worth in today's dollars?
NPV=cf0+cf1/(1+r)+cf2/(1+r)^2.....cfn/(1+r)^n.
Where r is the taken to be the interest you would gain if you had the money now instead of in the the future.
I was just wondering if I could apply this formula to to a debt repayment. If I assumed an annual inflation rate of 2% could I set r= the inflation rate to calculate how how much future debt payments set in nominal terms would be worth in today's dollars?