Hello, I would like to ask this limits question, question 6d. The (d) below is the suggested solution.
The solution says that the right and left limits for f(x)/g(x) are negative infinity and infinity respectively. I would like to ask how did they come to this conclusion? If we do one sided limits for f(x) and g(x) separately, they are -1 and 0 and they do exist because the left and right limits are equal. Thus, shouldnt the limit for f(x)/g(x) be -1/0 which is negative infinity? Thank you for your help.
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