Hello!
I'm doing a business analysis for a brand. I calculated the volume share of this brand (brand sales/category sales*100) for two months and their change vs last year. I did this on total country level by their individual channels. Interestingly, The share change for the total country level is lower than any of the channels when normally you expect the total country share change to fall within the range of the values of its individual channels. Is this mathematically possible? How do you explain it? Below is the table for your reference:
I'm doing a business analysis for a brand. I calculated the volume share of this brand (brand sales/category sales*100) for two months and their change vs last year. I did this on total country level by their individual channels. Interestingly, The share change for the total country level is lower than any of the channels when normally you expect the total country share change to fall within the range of the values of its individual channels. Is this mathematically possible? How do you explain it? Below is the table for your reference:
Volume share of a Brand | |||
last month | this month | change | |
Total Country | 7.2% | 6.8% | -0.4% |
Channel 1 | 8.9% | 8.8% | -0.1% |
Channel 2 | 3.7% | 3.8% | 0.1% |
Channel 3 | 4.1% | 4.0% | -0.1% |
Channel 4 | 1.8% | 2.4% | 0.6% |