Please, check my proof that smallest natural number "e" where a^e=1(mod p) must divide (p-1)

Boi

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First things first: I have posted my proof here because I don't know where to post questions about number theory. What I needed to proof definitely wasn't an advanced math theorem; just a simple task from an old book of mine.

Prove that the smallest number natural number e e , satisfying the equation ae1(modp)a^e \equiv 1\pmod p, must divide (p-1).
My proof:

Suppose the opposite: we assume that e e is the smallest natural number satisfying ae1(modp)a^e \equiv 1\pmod p (later I will not write mod p) but it does not divide (p1) (p-1) . Then, we can say p1=ke+rp-1=ke+r, where 0<r<e0 < r < e. By Fermat's Little Theorem, it must be true that ake+r1a^{ke+r} \equiv 1 or 1) (ae)kar1(a^e)^k*a^r \equiv 1. By our assumption, ae1a^e \equiv 1, which also means that (ae)k1(a^e)^k \equiv 1. Knowing this, we can rewrite 1) as ar1a^r \equiv 1. We definitely know r0r \not = 0 and r<er < e. We've just arrived at contradiction: ee was assumed to be the smallest natural number satisfying our equation but we just have found a smaller one. So, ee must divide (p1) (p-1) .
 
Looks good, but a) do you need to mention that pp is prime? and b) that a>1a>1 ?
 
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Looks good, but a) do you need to mention that pp is prime? and b) that a>1a>1 ?
Oh, yeah, I totally forgot that. Yes, pp is prime and a>1a > 1. pp also must not divide aa. This exercise is given in the textbook after chapter explaining Fermat's Little Theorem.
 
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