Hi guys,
I'm a bit stuck in an exercise and I would appreciate some help.
Let X1,X2,...,Xn,Xn+1 be a random sample of size n+1, n>1, from a distribution that is N(μ,σ2). Let Xˉ=i=1∑nXi/n and S2=i=1∑n(Xi−Xˉ)2/(n−1). Show that in order for the statistic c(Xˉ−Xn+1)/S to have a t-distribution, the constant c must equal n+1n−1.
Okay, we can view the statistic as a difference in means Confidence Interval. From the definition of the t-distribution we know that T=V/rW where W∼N(0,1) and V∼χ2(r).
We know that Xˉ∼N(μ,nσ2) and Xn+1∼N(μ,σ2). Since those two are independent(because of the random sample) we can say that the total variance is equal to σ2(nn+1). Since the means are equal our numerator then becomes nσn+1Xˉ−Xn+1.
My problem is now to find the chi squared distributed denominator that will give me the n−1 part of c. Since the variances are unequal I do not think we can use a pooled estimator. Any suggestions are greatly appreciated. Thanks.
EDIT: I have looked it up extensively in the meantime and it seems that everyone uses the coefficient n+1n instead of n+1n−1. The first case is the one I am able to show and it conforms with my intuition but I do not know which one is correct. Could it be that my book is mistaken at this point? God, this is confusing indeed.
I'm a bit stuck in an exercise and I would appreciate some help.
Let X1,X2,...,Xn,Xn+1 be a random sample of size n+1, n>1, from a distribution that is N(μ,σ2). Let Xˉ=i=1∑nXi/n and S2=i=1∑n(Xi−Xˉ)2/(n−1). Show that in order for the statistic c(Xˉ−Xn+1)/S to have a t-distribution, the constant c must equal n+1n−1.
Okay, we can view the statistic as a difference in means Confidence Interval. From the definition of the t-distribution we know that T=V/rW where W∼N(0,1) and V∼χ2(r).
We know that Xˉ∼N(μ,nσ2) and Xn+1∼N(μ,σ2). Since those two are independent(because of the random sample) we can say that the total variance is equal to σ2(nn+1). Since the means are equal our numerator then becomes nσn+1Xˉ−Xn+1.
My problem is now to find the chi squared distributed denominator that will give me the n−1 part of c. Since the variances are unequal I do not think we can use a pooled estimator. Any suggestions are greatly appreciated. Thanks.
EDIT: I have looked it up extensively in the meantime and it seems that everyone uses the coefficient n+1n instead of n+1n−1. The first case is the one I am able to show and it conforms with my intuition but I do not know which one is correct. Could it be that my book is mistaken at this point? God, this is confusing indeed.
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