# Proof for this power limit without differentiation

#### wolly

##### New member
I am stuck at the last step and I don't know how to go on.Can someone help me?What do I do from the last step?

#### pka

##### Elite Member
I am stuck at the last step and I don't know how to go on.Can someone help me?What do I do from the last step?View attachment 12111
Here is a suggestion. Use $$\displaystyle \exp(x)=e^x$$ to simplify notation.
The try $$\displaystyle \exp \left( {\log \left( {\cos {{\left( {\frac{1}{x}} \right)}^{{x^2}}}} \right)} \right) = \exp \left( {{x^2}\log \left( {\cos \left( {\frac{1}{x}} \right)} \right)} \right)$$

#### Jomo

##### Elite Member
Personally, I would use the squeeze theorem.
If x is large enough (you find out how large), then 0<cos(1/x)< .5 (.5 can be replaced with any other positive number less than 1)

#### pka

##### Elite Member
Personally, I would use the squeeze theorem.
If x is large enough (you find out how large), then 0<cos(1/x)< .5 (.5 can be replaced with any other positive number less than 1)
Jomo, $$\displaystyle \mathop {\lim }\limits_{x \to \infty } \cos \left( {\frac{1}{x}} \right) = 1$$.
Do you want to rethink: x is large enough (you find out how large), then 0<cos(1/x)< .5???

#### Jomo

##### Elite Member
Jomo, $$\displaystyle \mathop {\lim }\limits_{x \to \infty } \cos \left( {\frac{1}{x}} \right) = 1$$.
Do you want to rethink: x is large enough (you find out how large), then 0<cos(1/x)< .5???
Yes, I do want to rethink that one. Thanks for pointing it out. Good job!