Prove Inequality

[kevThomp]

Prove that for 0<r<1
[math]( 1 + cos ? ) ^ ? ≤ 1 + ? ( 1 − ? ^ 2 / 2 + ? ^ 4 / 4 ! )[/math])

i think it it has to do something with Bernoulli inequality but other than that i have no idea
please help

 

[Steven G]

What is Bernoulli inequality and why do you think you need this?
On this forum you receive, but never answers.
You show us your attempt and you will receive suggestions.