According to google:
A polynomial with integer coefficients that cannot be factored into polynomials of lower degree , also with integer coefficients, is called an irreducible or prime polynomial.
Does the given polynomial have rational roots? Why am I asking about rational roots?
If the given quadratic was reducible, then it could be expressed as the product to two linear functions having integer coefficients, both of which would have rational roots. The rational roots theorem tells us that the only possible rational roots here are:
[MATH]x=\pm1[/MATH]
But, neither of those values of \(x\) makes the polynomial zero. Since there are then no rational roots, the polynomial must be prime.
If you use the discriminant of a quadratic function, then you must find it is a non-negative perfect square.
So, is my answer wrong?
The polynomial is in fact prime (irreducible), and if the discriminant of a quadratic is negative, it is prime. But that doesn't mean if the discriminant is non-negative, the quadratic is composite. The discriminant must be a non-negative perfect square (so that the roots are rational) in order for it to be composite. I wanted to clear that point up, and provide another way to look at the problem.
Can you provide an example when the quadratic is composite?
[MATH]f(x)=x^2-7x+12[/MATH]
What is the discriminant? Is it a non-negative perfect square?
So, what do you conclude?
Is 1 a non-negative perfect square?
You tell me.
sqrt{1} = 1 because 1 x 1 = 1. It is a perfect square that is not negative.
What about 0?
sqrt{0} = 0 because 0 x 0 = 0.
Is 0 a non-negative perfect square?
[MATH]1=1^2[/MATH]
[MATH]0=0^2[/MATH]
Both are non-negative (recall a negative number is less than zero), and both are perfect squares. When the disriminant is a non-negative perfect square, then we know the roots are rational (why?), and thus, we know the quadratic can be expressed as the product of linear factors, and must therefore be composite.
Yes, indeed.