The Central Limit Theorem

Harry_the_cat said:
Also, the distribution in (c) is approximately normal (since n=40>=30). This is the Central Limit theorem.
The distribution in (a) is NOT normal.
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Ohno... Why did we use 1.5 then from (a)......? Or does it not matter because the distribution for (c) is normal
 
eutas1 said:
Ohno... Why did we use 1.5 then from (a)......? Or does it not matter because the distribution for (c) is normal
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That's right it doesn't matter what distribution (a) is. That's what's good about the central limit theorem. The original distribution can be anything, but the distribution of sample means will be approx normal when n>=30. (sorry had an important phone call)
 
Harry_the_cat said:
That's right it doesn't matter what distribution (a) is. That's what's good about the central limit theorem. The original distribution can be anything, but the distribution of sample means will be approx normal when n>=30. (sorry had an important phone call)
Click to expand...
OH!!! Oh yeah I totally forgot about that... thank you so much for all of your help!!!
 
Glad to help. You seem to understand a bit better now. It is a difficult concept to grasp. I'm going offline now. Let me know if you have any issues with (e).
 
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