Hallo!
Is the following sequence of integrable random variables (Xh)h∈[0,1] also uniformly integrable?
Xh=n=1∏hT(1+α(n−1)h(exp{μ(n−1)hh+σ(Wnh−W(n−1)h)}−1))γ
whereas
W is a standard Brownian motion,
σ a constant \(\displaystyle \in \matbb{R}_+,\)
αt is a random variable with values in [0,1],
μt is a standard-normal distributed random variable and μt is continous in t
[0,T] is the time interval and it is required that \(\displaystyle N:=\frac{T}{h} \in \matbb{N}\) and
γ is a constant ∈(0,1)
I also know that Xh converges in probability for h→0 to a integrable random variable X.
I've no idea how to show it.
Can anybody help me?
Is the following sequence of integrable random variables (Xh)h∈[0,1] also uniformly integrable?
Xh=n=1∏hT(1+α(n−1)h(exp{μ(n−1)hh+σ(Wnh−W(n−1)h)}−1))γ
whereas
W is a standard Brownian motion,
σ a constant \(\displaystyle \in \matbb{R}_+,\)
αt is a random variable with values in [0,1],
μt is a standard-normal distributed random variable and μt is continous in t
[0,T] is the time interval and it is required that \(\displaystyle N:=\frac{T}{h} \in \matbb{N}\) and
γ is a constant ∈(0,1)
I also know that Xh converges in probability for h→0 to a integrable random variable X.
I've no idea how to show it.
Can anybody help me?