Upper and Lower Bounds Theorem for zeros of a polynomial

jpanknin

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Does anyone know of a proof of this theorem using algebra? I've found a few using calculus, but I'm not there yet. Or even explanations as to why the rules hold? My book gives two sentences, the rules, and then proceeds to some examples, but no deeper explanation (see image attached).

Why, when the quotient and remainder have no negative entries does that indicate an upper bound? Likewise, why, when the quotient and remainder have alternating nonpositive and nonnegative entries does that indicate a lower bound? I've found a lot of resources that just state the rules and then work out problems, but nothing that explains WHY these rules and this theorem work. Any explanation or pointer to resources would be much appreciated.
 

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Does anyone know of a proof of this theorem using algebra? I've found a few using calculus, but I'm not there yet. Or even explanations as to why the rules hold? My book gives two sentences, the rules, and then proceeds to some examples, but no deeper explanation (see image attached).

Why, when the quotient and remainder have no negative entries does that indicate an upper bound? Likewise, why, when the quotient and remainder have alternating nonpositive and nonnegative entries does that indicate a lower bound? I've found a lot of resources that just state the rules and then work out problems, but nothing that explains WHY these rules and this theorem work. Any explanation or pointer to resources would be much appreciated.
Have you tried thinking about why it might be true yourself? That can be more valuable than being told a proof.

Suppose you have a polynomial P(x), and find that when you divide it by (x-c), where c>0, the quotient has no negative coefficients, and the remainder is non-negative. What does this imply about P(c)? What does it imply about P(d), where d>c?
 
Thanks, @Dr.Peterson. The upper bound makes sense. If you have no change of sign then you'll have no change of direction. But the lower bound is still confusing. I've worked out a number of problems and then checked them graphically and it does seem the rule holds, but I can't see WHY it holds for the lower bound.

I found the following paper (most of it is beyond my understanding), but the first page gives a pretty simple explanation of why it intuitively makes sense. http://sepwww.stanford.edu/oldsep/stew_save/descartes.pdf

I also found another article that claims the upper bound rule also holds if the quotient has ALL negative coefficients. So if the quotient has all negative or all positive coefficients, this indicates an upper bound. Is this accurate?
 
Thanks, @Dr.Peterson. The upper bound makes sense. If you have no change of sign then you'll have no change of direction. But the lower bound is still confusing. I've worked out a number of problems and then checked them graphically and it does seem the rule holds, but I can't see WHY it holds for the lower bound.

I found the following paper (most of it is beyond my understanding), but the first page gives a pretty simple explanation of why it intuitively makes sense. http://sepwww.stanford.edu/oldsep/stew_save/descartes.pdf

I also found another article that claims the upper bound rule also holds if the quotient has ALL negative coefficients. So if the quotient has all negative or all positive coefficients, this indicates an upper bound. Is this accurate?
I don't see the upper and lower bounds mentioned in the paper you refer to; that's about Descartes' Rule of Signs, which is a different theorem. And I find that first page unclear, or at least misleadingly simple, as a justification of DRS.

Your sentence, "If you have no change of sign then you'll have no change of direction", presumably influenced by that, is likewise not really meaningful.

Did you try what I suggested as a way of thinking about it? I think it will be very helpful.

I can also refer you to this page, where I have explained the meaning of the bounds theorem, which is easily misunderstood; I said nothing about a proof, but being clear about what it means helps in thinking about why. If you read carefully, you'll also find a link to a page that includes a proof; but I think the line of thinking I suggested leads to a simpler explanation (which amounts to what the proof says, but in a necessarily more complicated way).

As for the negative case, I haven't taken the time yet to confirm my expectation that it can be derived in much the same way that the negative-root case of DRS can be derived from the positive-root case. I'll do so now.

Finally, I think the usual form of the bounds theorem assumes, as we commonly do, a positive leading coefficient. If you allow it to be negative, then I think the all-negative version follows naturally from the usual form. So that is not surprising, but we can easily live without it, by just multiplying through by -1.
 
Thanks, @Dr.Peterson. That discussion was extremely helpful. I had many of the same questions and confusions that Michael did (finding a zero that was the upper bound but did not have all non-negative coefficients in the quotient, narrowing the list of potential factors from a quotient, and the seeming discrepancy of the "one-sided logic test," which now makes sense). The use and value of the theorem has come together much better for me mentally.

I'm still struggling with the intuition behind the lower bound rule, though. The upper bound completely makes sense. I used your example above of [imath](x-c)Q(x)[/imath] where [imath]Q(x)[/imath] has all positive coefficients with values that are increasingly greater than [imath]c[/imath] and see why it would hold.

However, I've worked through all the exercises in Stewart's Algebra and Trigonometry 4E, section 3.4. The lower bound rule works and has been verified graphically, so I know it works (it also seems to work for the upper bound when the leading coefficient is negative and the quotient contains all negative). I think one of my confusions is that according to DRS, sign changes indicate possible roots. So why does the alternating positive/negative indicate a lower bound. I'm still not getting the intuition behind the lower bound.

In terms of the paper I referred to, my thinking was that DRS says that if there are no sign changes in the polynomial [imath]P(x)[/imath] then there are no positive real roots and if there are no sign changes when testing [imath]P(-x)[/imath] then there will be no real negative roots. So if a quotient contains all positive or all negative coefficients, then there will be no sign changes for higher/lower values of [imath]x[/imath]. Still somewhat muddled mentally, but that's the idea I had.

As for the amount of explanation in textbooks, I find it very frustrating to have a somewhat complex idea presented that doesn't explain the "why's" behind the idea. And the use of formal mathematical logic at the lower math levels for the sake of brevity (for students not yet accustomed to formal math and probably not very mathematically mature) is a great way to lead to confusion. But I guess the alternative is 3,000 page textbooks that are $1,000 each. Also not viable.
 
In terms of the paper I referred to, my thinking was that DRS says that if there are no sign changes in the polynomial P(x) then there are no positive real roots and if there are no sign changes when testing P(−x) then there will be no real negative roots. So if a quotient contains all positive or all negative coefficients, then there will be no sign changes for higher/lower values of x. Still somewhat muddled mentally, but that's the idea I had.
I hadn't considered that you can use Descartes' Rule of Signs itself (not its informal proof, which is what you were implying) to prove the bounds theorem(s). Let's do that explicitly for both bounds. (I'll assume positive leading coefficient, and I won't worry about zero coefficients for simplicity.)

For the upper bound, we assume that the quotient has all positive coefficients, and the remainder is positive. Then DRS applied to the quotient says that the quotient has no positive zeros; therefore the quotient times the divisor (x-c), plus the remainder, will be positive for all x>c.

How about the lower bound? Here we divide by (x-c) where c is negative, and assume that the quotient has alternating signs, and the remainder continues the pattern. I think we need to consider two cases.

If the degree is odd, then there are an even number of coefficients, which will be +-...+-, so the remainder will be positive. DRS says that the quotient has no negative zeros, and the positive leading term implies its graph falls to the left, so it is negative for all x<c. Thus, for x<c, we have a negative quotient times a negative divisor, plus a positive remainder, and the result is always positive, and never zero.

If the degree is even, then there are an odd number of coefficients, which will be +-...+-+, so the remainder will be negative. DRS says that the quotient has no negative zeros, and the positive leading term implies its graph rises to the left, so it is positive for all x<c. Thus, for x<c, we have a positive quotient times a negative divisor, plus a negative remainder, and the result is always negative, and never zero.

I haven't tried to make it a complete proof, but it seems to work.
I'm still struggling with the intuition behind the lower bound rule, though. The upper bound completely makes sense. I used your example above of [imath](x-c)Q(x)[/imath] where [imath]Q(x)[/imath] has all positive coefficients with values that are increasingly greater than [imath]c[/imath] and see why it would hold.
I think one of my confusions is that according to DRS, sign changes indicate possible roots. So why does the alternating positive/negative indicate a lower bound. I'm still not getting the intuition behind the lower bound.
My original idea was to do the same approach we use for DRS to prove the alternating signs case using the positive signs case. Given that the latter is true, f(-x) will have the same sign, therefore no positive zeros; so f(x) has no negative zeros. But it does take a little juggling to handle the details, probably involving the same two cases as above.

I suspect you are being confused by that first page of the paper, which misleadingly relates sign changes from one coefficient to the next with zeros. That connection is not so direct; and the intuition it provides is nothing like a proof.

As for textbooks, some put proofs of major theorems in an appendix where the better students, who can benefit from them, can find them; but even those often have to just give a brief summary of a proof that is beyond that level. Links to online sources could be helpful in such cases.
 
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