L Lime New member Joined Sep 8, 2006 Messages 49 Nov 14, 2006 #1 How do you go from 1,000,000pi 0~-60 (2 + y/30) dy to this 1,000,000pi [2y + (y^2)/60] The ~ means that antiderivative symbol.
How do you go from 1,000,000pi 0~-60 (2 + y/30) dy to this 1,000,000pi [2y + (y^2)/60] The ~ means that antiderivative symbol.
stapel Super Moderator Staff member Joined Feb 4, 2004 Messages 16,550 Nov 14, 2006 #2 You anti-differentiate the two terms, and then evaluate at 60 and at 0. Since the terms at 0 vanish, you're left with just the others. Eliz.
You anti-differentiate the two terms, and then evaluate at 60 and at 0. Since the terms at 0 vanish, you're left with just the others. Eliz.
