ISTER_REG
Junior Member
- Joined
- Oct 28, 2020
- Messages
- 59
Hi,
Given is the following equation [MATH]cos(x) +sin(x) = 0[/MATH], my first conversion is [MATH]cos(x) = -sin(x)[/MATH]. I know that it is possible to re-write the -sin(x) term. Therefore [MATH]-sin(x) = cos(x + \frac{\pi}{2})[/MATH]. Now I would like to apply [MATH]cos^{-1}(x)[/MATH] to the equation [MATH]cos(x) = cos(x + \frac{\pi}{2})[/MATH]. This brings me to [MATH]x = x + \frac{\pi}{2}[/MATH] which is clearly not true since [MATH]0 \neq \frac{\pi}{2}[/MATH].
But if I use [MATH]cos(x) = cos(-x)[/MATH] in the above equation [MATH]cos(x) = cos(x + \frac{\pi}{2})[/MATH] so [MATH]cos(-x) = cos(x + \frac{\pi}{2})[/MATH] it comes to [MATH]-2x =\frac{\pi}{2}[/MATH], knowing that cosine is a [MATH]2\pi[/MATH] periodic function I would say the solution (based on the last abstract) is [MATH]x = -\frac{\pi}{4} \pm n\pi[/MATH]. Since [MATH]-2x = \frac{\pi}{2} \pm 2n\pi[/MATH]
Why does the first part of the invoice not work? Why can't I just use [MATH]cos^{-1}(x)[/MATH] for [MATH]cos(x) = cos(x + \frac{\pi}{2})[/MATH], but I have to consider that [MATH]cos(x) = cos(-x)[/MATH] is valid (which leads to the right solution). So why do I get a correct solution in the second paragraph, while I get no solution in the first paragraph?
Thanks for coming answers!
Given is the following equation [MATH]cos(x) +sin(x) = 0[/MATH], my first conversion is [MATH]cos(x) = -sin(x)[/MATH]. I know that it is possible to re-write the -sin(x) term. Therefore [MATH]-sin(x) = cos(x + \frac{\pi}{2})[/MATH]. Now I would like to apply [MATH]cos^{-1}(x)[/MATH] to the equation [MATH]cos(x) = cos(x + \frac{\pi}{2})[/MATH]. This brings me to [MATH]x = x + \frac{\pi}{2}[/MATH] which is clearly not true since [MATH]0 \neq \frac{\pi}{2}[/MATH].
But if I use [MATH]cos(x) = cos(-x)[/MATH] in the above equation [MATH]cos(x) = cos(x + \frac{\pi}{2})[/MATH] so [MATH]cos(-x) = cos(x + \frac{\pi}{2})[/MATH] it comes to [MATH]-2x =\frac{\pi}{2}[/MATH], knowing that cosine is a [MATH]2\pi[/MATH] periodic function I would say the solution (based on the last abstract) is [MATH]x = -\frac{\pi}{4} \pm n\pi[/MATH]. Since [MATH]-2x = \frac{\pi}{2} \pm 2n\pi[/MATH]
Why does the first part of the invoice not work? Why can't I just use [MATH]cos^{-1}(x)[/MATH] for [MATH]cos(x) = cos(x + \frac{\pi}{2})[/MATH], but I have to consider that [MATH]cos(x) = cos(-x)[/MATH] is valid (which leads to the right solution). So why do I get a correct solution in the second paragraph, while I get no solution in the first paragraph?
Thanks for coming answers!